FCL.001 Competent authority

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

For the purpose of this Part, the competent authority shall be an authority designated by the Member State to whom a person applies for the issue of pilot licences or associated ratings or certificates.

FCL.005 Scope

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

This Part establishes the requirements for the issue of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates and the conditions of their validity and use.

GM1 FCL.005 Scope

ED Decision 2020/005/R

INTERPRETATIVE MATERIAL

(a) Whenever licences, ratings, approvals or certificates are mentioned in Part-FCL, these are meant to be valid licences, ratings, approvals or certificates issued in accordance with Part-FCL. In all other cases, these documents are specified.

(b) Whenever a reference is made to Member States to mutual recognition of licences, ratings, approvals or certificates, this means a European Union Member State and states associated to the Agency in accordance with Article 55 of the Regulation (EC) No 216/2008 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 February 2008.

(c) Whenever an inclusive or exclusive ‘or’ is used, it should be understood within the context of the whole meaning of the requirement in which it is used.

FCL.010 Definitions

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

For the purposes of this Annex (Part-FCL), the following definitions shall apply:

—             "Accessible" means that a device can be used by:

—             the approved training organisation (ATO) under whose approval a training course for a class or type rating is being conducted; or

—             the examiner conducting the assessment of competence, skill test or proficiency check for the purpose of assessing, testing or checking.

—             "Aerobatic flight" means an intentional manoeuvre involving an abrupt change in an aircraft's attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight or for instruction for licences, certificates, or ratings other than the aerobatic rating.

—             "Aeroplane" means an engine-driven fixed-wing aircraft heavier than air which is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its wings.

—             "Aeroplane" required to be operated with a co-pilot" means a type of aeroplane which is required to be operated with a co-pilot as specified in the flight manual or by the air operator certificate.

—             "Aeroplane upset prevention and recovery training" (UPRT) means training consisting of:

—             aeroplane upset prevention training: a combination of theoretical knowledge and flying training with the aim of providing flight crew with the required competencies to prevent aeroplane upsets; and

—             aeroplane upset recovery training: a combination of theoretical knowledge and flying training with the aim of providing flight crew with the required competencies to recover from aeroplane upsets.

—             "Aircraft" means any machine which can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth’s surface.

—             "Airmanship" means the consistent use of good judgement and well-developed knowledge, skills and attitudes to accomplish flight objectives.

—             "Airship" means a power-driven lighter-than-air aircraft, with the exception of hot-air airships, which are considered to be balloons in accordance with Article 2(7) of Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395.

—             "Available FSTD" means any flight simulation training device (FSTD) that is vacant for use of the FSTD operator or of the customer irrespective of any time considerations.

—             "Angular operation" means an instrument approach operation in which the maximum tolerable error/deviation from the planned track is expressed in terms of deflection of the needles on the Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) or equivalent display in the cockpit.

—             "Assessment of competence" means the demonstration of skills, knowledge and attitude for the initial issue, revalidation or renewal of an instructor or examiner certificate.

—             "Balloon" means a lighter-than-air aircraft which is not engine-driven and sustains flight through the use of either gas or an airborne heater. For the purposes of this Part, a hot-air airship, although engine-driven, is also considered a balloon.

—             "Category of aircraft" means a categorisation of aircraft according to specified basic characteristics, for example aeroplane, powered-lift, helicopter, airship, sailplane, free balloon.

—             "Class of aeroplane" means a categorisation of single-pilot aeroplanes not requiring a type rating.

—             "Commercial air transport" means the transport of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or hire.

—             "Competency" means a combination of skills, knowledge and attitude required to perform a task to the prescribed standard.

—             "Competency element" means an action which constitutes a task that has a triggering event and a terminating event that clearly defines its limits, and an observable outcome.

—             "Competency unit" means a discrete function consisting of a number of competency elements.

—             "Co-pilot" means a pilot operating other than as pilot-in-command, on an aircraft for which more than one pilot is required, but excluding a pilot who is on board the aircraft for the sole purpose of receiving flight instruction for a licence or rating.

—             "Cross-country" means a flight between a point of departure and a point of arrival following a pre-planned route, using standard navigation procedures.

—             "Cruise relief co-pilot" means a pilot who relieves the co-pilot of his/her duties at the controls during the cruise phase of a flight in multi-pilot operations above FL 200.

—             "Dual instruction time" means flight time or instrument ground time during which a person is receiving flight instruction from a properly authorised instructor.

—             "En route IFR flight" means the phase of an IFR flight that commences after the completion of an IFR departure procedure and finishes when commencing an IFR approach procedure.

—             "Error" means an action or inaction taken by the flight crew which leads to deviations from organisational or flight intentions or expectations.

—             "Error management" means the process of detecting and responding to errors with countermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of errors, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.

—             ''Evidence based training (EBT) operator'' means an organisation that is holding an air operator certificate (AOC) in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 and that has implemented an EBT programme approved by the competent authority, in accordance with the provisions of that Regulation.

—             ''EBT practical assessment'' means a method for assessing performance that serves to verify the integrated performance of competencies. It takes place in either a simulated or an operational environment.

—             ''EBT programme'' means a pilot assessment and training programme in accordance with point ORO.FC.231 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.

—             ''Mixed EBT programme'' means an operator’s recurrent training and checking programme provided for in point ORO.FC.230 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012, a portion of which is dedicated to the application of EBT but which does not replace proficiency checks provided for in Appendix 9 to this Annex.

—             "Full Flight Simulator" (FFS) means a full size replica of a specific type or make, model and series aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of all equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight operations, a visual system providing an out-of-the-flight deck view, and a force cueing motion system.

—             "Flight time":

—             for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift aircraft, it means the total time from the moment an aircraft first moves for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight;

—             for helicopters, it means the total time from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped;

—             for airships, it means the total time from the moment an airship is released from the mast for the purpose of taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and is secured on the mast.

—             "Flight time under Instrument Flight Rules" (IFR) means all flight time during which the aircraft is being operated under the Instrument Flight Rules.

—             "Flight Training Device" (FTD) means a full size replica of a specific aircraft type’s instruments, equipment, panels and controls in an open flight deck area or an enclosed aircraft flight deck, including the assemblage of equipment and computer software programmes necessary to represent the aircraft in ground and flight conditions to the extent of the systems installed in the device. It does not require a force cueing motion or visual system, except in the case of helicopter FTD levels 2 and 3, where visual systems are required.

—             "Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer" (FNPT) means a training device which represents the flight deck or cockpit environment, including the assemblage of equipment and computer programmes necessary to represent an aircraft type or class in flight operations to the extent that the systems appear to function as in an aircraft.

—             "Flown solely by reference to instruments" means that the pilots fly the aircraft without any external visual references, in simulated or actual instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

—             "Helicopter" means a heavier-than-air aircraft supported in flight chiefly by the reactions of the air on one or more power-driven rotors on substantially vertical axes.

—             "Instrument flight time" means the time during which a pilot is controlling an aircraft in flight solely by reference to instruments.

—             "Instrument ground time" means the time during which a pilot is receiving instruction in simulated instrument flight, in flight simulation training devices (FSTD).

—             "Instrument time" means instrument flight time or instrument ground time.

—             "Limited panel instrument flight" means attitude interpretation by reference to standby instruments interpretation after the loss of main attitude and heading reference system.

—             "Linear operation" means an instrument approach operation in which the maximum tolerable error/deviation from the planned track is expressed in units of length, for instance nautical miles, for cross-track lateral deviation.

—             "Line flying under supervision" (LIFUS) means line flying after an approved zero flight time type rating training course or the line flying required by an operational suitability data (OSD) report.

—             "LNAV" means Lateral Navigation.

—             "LPV" means Localiser Performance with Vertical Guidance.

—             "Multi-pilot operation" means an operation requiring at least two pilots using multi-crew cooperation in either a multi-pilot or a single-pilot aircraft.

—             "Multi-crew cooperation" (MCC) means the functioning of the flight crew as a team of cooperating members led by the pilot-in-command.

—             "Multi-pilot aircraft":

—             for aeroplanes, it means aeroplanes certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots,

—             or helicopters, airships and powered-lift aircraft, it means an aircraft which is certificated for operation with a minimum crew of at least two pilots or which is required to be operated with at least two pilots in accordance with Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.

—             "Night" means the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by the appropriate authority.

—             "OSD" means the operational suitability data established in accordance with Annex I (Part-21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012.’;

—             "Other training devices" (OTD) means training aids other than FSTDs which provide means for training where a complete flight deck environment is not necessary.

—             "Performance-Based Navigation (PBN)" means area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS route, on an instrument approach procedure or in a designated airspace.

—             "Performance criteria" means a simple, evaluative statement on the required outcome of the competency element and a description of the criteria used to judge if the required level of performance has been achieved.

—             "Pilot-in-command" (PIC) means the pilot designated as being in command and charged with the safe conduct of the flight.

—             "Pilot-in-command under supervision" (PICUS) means a co-pilot performing, under the supervision of the pilot-in-command, the duties and functions of a pilot-in-command.

—             "Powered-lift aircraft" means any aircraft deriving vertical lift and in flight propulsion/lift from variable geometry rotors or engines/propulsive devices attached to or contained within the fuselage or wings.

—             "Powered sailplane" means a sailplane equipped with one or more engines that has, with engines inoperative, the characteristics of a sailplane.

—             "Private pilot" means a pilot who holds a licence which prohibits the piloting of aircraft in operations for which remuneration is given, with the exclusion of instruction or examination activities, as established in this Part.

—             "Proficiency check" means the demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings or privileges, and including such oral examination as may be required.

—             "Renewal" (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken after a rating or certificate has lapsed for the purpose of renewing the privileges of the rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.

—             "Revalidation" (of, e.g. a rating or certificate) means the administrative action taken within the period of validity of a rating or certificate which allows the holder to continue to exercise the privileges of a rating or certificate for a further specified period consequent upon the fulfilment of specified requirements.

—             "RNP APCH" means a PBN specification used for instrument approach operations.

—             "RNP APCH operation down to LNAV minima" means a 2D instrument approach operation for which the lateral guidance is based on GNSS positioning.

—             "RNP APCH operation down to LNAV/VNAV minima" means a 3D instrument approach operation for which the lateral guidance is based on GNSS positioning and the vertical guidance is provided either by the Baro VNAV function or by the GNSS positioning including SBAS.

—             "RNP APCH operation down to LPV minima" means a 3D instrument approach operation for which both lateral and vertical guidance are based on GNSS positioning including SBAS.

—             "RNP AR APCH" means a navigation specification used for instrument approach operations requiring a specific approval.

—             "Route sector" means a flight comprising take-off, departure, cruise of not less than 15 minutes, arrival, approach and landing phases.

—             "Sailplane" means a heavier-than-air aircraft which is supported in flight by the dynamic reaction of the air against its fixed lifting surfaces, the free flight of which does not depend on an engine.

—             "Single-pilot aircraft":

—             for aeroplanes, it means an aircraft certificated for operation by one pilot,

—             for helicopters, airships and powered lift aircraft, it means an aircraft which is certificated for operation by one pilot and which is not required to be operated with at least two pilots by Regulation (EU) No 965/2012.

—             "Skill test" means the demonstration of skill for a licence or rating issue, including such oral examination as may be required.

—             "Solo flight time" means flight time during which a student pilot is the sole occupant of an aircraft.

—             "Student pilot-in-command" (SPIC) means a student pilot acting as pilot-in-command on a flight with an instructor where the latter will only observe the student pilot and shall not influence or control the flight of the aircraft.

—             "Threat" means events or errors which occur beyond the influence of the flight crew, increase operational complexity and which must be managed to maintain the margin of safety.

—             "Threat management" means the process of detecting and responding to the threats with countermeasures which reduce or eliminate the consequences of threats, and mitigate the probability of errors or undesired aircraft states.

—             "Three-dimensional (3D) instrument approach operation" means an instrument approach operation using both lateral and vertical navigation guidance.

—             "Touring motor glider (TMG)" means, unless otherwise specified following the certification process in accordance with Annex I (Part 21) to Regulation (EU) No 748/2012, a specific class of powered sailplanes that has an integrally mounted, non-retractable engine and a non‑retractable propeller. It shall be capable of taking off and climbing under its engine power according to its flight manual.

—             “Two-dimensional (2D) instrument approach operation” means an instrument approach operation using lateral navigation guidance only.

—             "Type of aircraft" means a categorisation of aircraft requiring a type rating as determined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, and which include all aircraft of the same basic design including all modifications thereto except those which result in a change in handling or flight characteristics.

—             "Type rating and licence endorsement list" means a list published by the Agency based on the result of the OSD evaluation and containing classes of aeroplanes and types of aircraft for the purpose of flight crew licensing.

—             “VNAV” means Vertical Navigation.

GM1 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2020/018/R

ABBREVIATIONS

The following abbreviations apply to the Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part-FCL:

A   Aeroplane

AC   Alternating Current

ACAS   Airborne Collision Avoidance System

ADF   Automatic Direction Finding

ADS   Aeronautical Design Standard

AFCS   Automatic Flight Control System

AFM   Aircraft Flight Manual

AGL   Above Ground Level

AIC   Aeronautical Information Circular

AIP   Aeronautical Information Publication

AIRAC  Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control

AIS   Aeronautical Information Services

AMC   Acceptable Means of Compliance

AeMC  Aero-medical Centre

AME   Aero-medical Examiner

AoA  Angle of Attack

AOH  Aircraft Operating Handbook

AOM   Aircraft Operating Manual

APU   Auxiliary Power Unit

As   Airship

ATC   Air Traffic Control

ATIS   Automatic Terminal Information Service

ATO   Approved Training Organisation

ATP   Airline Transport Pilot

ATPL   Airline Transport Pilot Licence

ATS   Air Traffic Service

AUM   All Up Mass

AUPRTA Airplane Upset Prevention and Recovery Training Aid

B   Balloon

BCAR   British Civil Airworthiness Requirement

BEM   Basic Empty Mass

BIR  Basic instrument rating

BITD   Basic Instrument Training Device

BPL   Balloon Pilot Licence

CAS   Calibrated Airspeed

CAT   Clear Air Turbulence

CB-IR   Competency-based training course for Instrument Rating

CDFA  Constant-Descent Final Approach

CDI   Course Deviation Indicator

CFI   Chief Flight Instructor

CG   Centre of Gravity

CP   Co-pilot

CPL   Commercial Pilot Licence

CRE   Class Rating Examiner

CRI   Class Rating Instructor

CRM   Crew Resource Management

CS   Certification Specification

CTKI  Chief Theoretical Knowledge Instructor

DC   Direct Current

DF   Direction Finding

DME   Distance Measuring Equipment

DPATO  Defined Point After Take-Off

DPBL   Defined Point Before Landing

DR   Dead Reckoning navigation

DTO   Declared Training Organisation

DVE  Degraded Visual Environment

ECQB   European Central Question Bank

EFIS   Electronic Flight Instrument System

EIR   En route Instrument Rating

EOL   Engine Off Landings

ERPM  Engine Revolutions per Minute

ETA   Estimated Time of Arrival

ETOPS  Extended-range Twin-engine Operation Performance Standard

FAF   Final Approach Fix

FAR   Federal Aviation Regulations

FCL   Flight Crew Licensing

FE   Flight Examiner

F/E   Flight Engineer

FEM   Flight Examiner Manual

FFS   Full-Flight Simulator

FI   Flight Instructor

FIE   Flight Instructor Examiner

FIS   Flight Information Service

FMC   Flight Management Computer

FMS   Flight Management System

FNPT   Flight and Navigation Procedures Trainer

FS   Flight Simulator

FSTD   Flight Simulation Training Device

ft   feet

FTD   Flight Training Device

G   Gravity forces

GLONASS  Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System

GM   Guidance Material

GNSS   Global Navigation Satellite Systems

GPS   Global Positioning System

H   Helicopter

HF   High Frequency

HOFCS  High Order Flight Control System

HPA   High-Performance Aeroplane

hrs   Hours

HUMS  Health and Usage Monitoring System

HT   Head of Training

IAS   Indicated Airspeed

ICAO   International Civil Aviation Organization

IGE   In-Ground Effect

IFR   Instrument Flight Rules

ILS   Instrument Landing System

IMC   Instrument Meteorological Conditions

IOS  Instructor Operating Station

IR   Instrument Rating

IRE   Instrument Rating Examiner

IRI   Instrument Rating Instructor

ISA   International Standard Atmosphere

JAR   Joint Aviation Requirements

kg   Kilogram

LAPL   Light Aircraft Pilot Licence

LDP   Landing Decision Point

LMT   Local Mean Time

LO   Learning Objectives

LOC-I   Loss of Control In-flight

LOFT   Line-Orientated Flight Training

m   Meter

MCC   Multi-Crew Cooperation

MCCI   Multi-Crew Cooperation Instructor

ME   Multi-Engine

MEL   Minimum Equipment List

MEP   Multi-Engine Piston

MET   Multi-Engine Turboprop

METAR  Meteorological Aerodrome Report

MI   Mountain Rating Instructor

MP   Multi-Pilot

MPA   Multi-Pilot Aeroplane

MPL   Multi-crew Pilot Licence

MPH   Multi-Pilot Helicopter

MTOM  Maximum Take-Off Mass

NDB   Non-Directional Beacon

NM   Nautical Miles

NOTAM  Notice To Airmen

NOTAR  No Tail Rotor

OAT   Outside Air Temperature

OBS   Omni Bearing Selector

OEI   One Engine Inoperative

OEM   Original Equipment Manufacturer

OGE   Out of Ground Effect

OML   Operational Multi-pilot Limitation

OSL   Operational Safety Pilot Limitation

OTD   Other Training Devices

PAPI   Precision Approach Path Indicator

PBN   Performance-based Navigation

PF  Pilot Flying

PIC   Pilot-In-Command

PICUS  Pilot-In-Command Under Supervision

PL   Powered-lift

PNF   Pilot Not Flying

POM  Pilot Operating Manual

PPL   Private Pilot Licence

QDM   Magnetic Heading (aircraft to station)

QDR  Magnetic Heading (station to aircraft)

QFE   Atmospheric pressure at aerodrome elevation

QNH   Altimeter sub-scale setting to obtain elevation when on the ground

RAIM  Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

RNAV   Radio Navigation

RPM   Revolutions per Minute

RRPM  Rotor Revolutions per Minute

R/T   Radio-telephony

S   Sailplane

SATCOM  Satellite Communication

SE   Single-Engine

SEP   Single-Engine Piston

SET   Single-Engine Turboprop

SFE   Synthetic Flight Examiner

SFI   Synthetic Flight Instructor

SID   Standard Instrument Departure

SIGMET  Significant Meteorological Weather

SLPC   Single Lever Power Control

SOP   Standard Operating Procedure

SP   Single-Pilot

SPA   Single-Pilot Aeroplane

SPH   Single-Pilot Helicopter

SPIC   Student PIC

SPL   Sailplane Pilot Licence

SSR   Secondary Surveillance Radar

STI   Synthetic Training Instructor

TAF   (Terminal Area Forecasts) Aerodrome Forecast

TAS   True Airspeed

TAWS  Terrain Awareness Warning System

TCH   Type Certificate Holder

TDP   Take-off Decision Point

TEM   Threat and Error Management

TK   Theoretical Knowledge

TMG   Touring Motor Glider

TORA  Take-Off Run Available

TODA   Take-Off Distance Available

TR   Type Rating

TRE   Type Rating Examiner

TRI   Type Rating Instructor

UPRT   Upset Prevention and Recovery Training

UTC   Universal Time Coordinated

V   Velocity

VASI   Visual Approach Slope Indicator

VFR   Visual Flight Rules

VHF   Very High Frequency

VMC   Visual Meteorological Conditions

VOLMET Meteorological Information for Aircraft in-Flight

VOR   VHF Omni-directional Radio Range

ZFTT   Zero Flight Time Training

ZFM   Zero Fuel Mass

GM2 FCL.010 Definitions – lateral and vertical navigation

ED Decision 2016/008/R

Lateral and vertical navigation guidance refers to the guidance provided either by:

(a) a ground-based radio navigation aid; or

(b) computer-generated navigation data from ground-based, space-based, self-contained navigation aids or a combination of these.

GM3 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2019/005/R

UPSET PREVENTION AND RECOVERY TRAINING (UPRT) DEFINITIONS

In the context of UPRT, the following abbreviations apply to the Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part-FCL:

‘Advanced UPRT’ refers to the advanced UPRT course in accordance with point FCL.745.A.

‘Aeroplane upset’ refers to an undesired aircraft state characterised by unintentional divergences from parameters normally experienced during operations. An aeroplane upset may involve pitch and/or bank angle divergences as well as inappropriate airspeeds for the conditions.

‘Angle of Attack (AoA)’ refers to the angle between the oncoming air, or relative wind, and a defined reference line on the aeroplane or wing.

‘Approach-to-stall’ refers to flight conditions bordered by the stall warning and stall.

‘Basic UPRT’ refers to the UPRT elements and exercises integrated into training courses for the issue of a CPL, MPL or Phases 1 to 3 of the integrated ATP course.

‘Developed upset’ refers to a condition meeting the definition of an aeroplane upset.

‘Developing upset’ refers to any time the aeroplane begins to unintentionally diverge from the intended flight path or airspeed.

‘Energy state’ refers to how much of each kind of energy (kinetic, potential or chemical) the aeroplane has available at any given time.

‘First indication of a stall’ refers to the initial aural, tactile or visual sign of a stall event which can be either naturally or synthetically induced.

‘Flight crew resilience’ refers to the ability of a flight crew member to recognise, absorb and adapt to disruptions.

‘Fidelity level’ refers to the level of realism assigned to each of the defined FSTD features.

‘Flight path’ refers to the trajectory or path of the aeroplane travelling through the air over a given space of time.

‘Flight path management’ refers to active manipulation, using either the aeroplane’s automation or manual handling, to command the aeroplane’s flight controls in order to direct the aeroplane along a desired trajectory.

‘FSTD validation envelope’ refers to the envelope consisting of the following three subdivisions:

(a) Flight test validated region

This is the region of the flight envelope which has been validated with flight test data, typically by comparing the performance of the FSTD against the flight test data through tests incorporated in the qualification test guide (QTG) and other flight test data utilised to further extend the model beyond the minimum requirements. Within this region, there is high confidence that the simulator responds similarly to the aircraft. Note that this region is not strictly limited to what has been tested in the QTG; as long as the aerodynamics mathematical model has been conformed to the flight test results, that portion of the mathematical model can be considered to be within the flight test validated region.

(b)  Wind tunnel and/or analytical region

This is the region of the flight envelope for which the FSTD has not been compared to flight test data, but for which there has been wind tunnel testing or the use of other reliable predictive methods (typically by the aircraft manufacturer) to define the aerodynamic model. Any extensions to the aerodynamic model that have been evaluated in accordance with the definition of an exemplar stall model (as described in the stall manoeuvre evaluation section) must be clearly indicated. Within this region, there is moderate confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft.

(c)  Extrapolated region

This is the region extrapolated beyond the flight test validated and wind tunnel/analytical regions. The extrapolation may be a linear extrapolation, a holding of the last value before the extrapolation began, or some other set of values. Whether this extrapolated data is provided by the aircraft or simulator manufacturer, it is a ‘best guess’ only. Within this region, there is low confidence that the simulator will respond similarly to the aircraft. Brief excursions into this region may still retain a moderate confidence level in FSTD fidelity; however, the instructor should be aware that the FSTD’s response may deviate from that of the actual aircraft.

‘Load factor’ refers to the ratio of a specified load to the weight of the aeroplane, the former being expressed in terms of aerodynamic forces, propulsive forces or ground reactions.

‘Loss of Control In-flight (LOC-I)’ refers to a categorisation of an accident or incident resulting from a deviation from the intended flight path.

‘Manoeuvre-based training’ refers to training that focuses on a single event or manoeuvre in isolation.

‘Negative training’ refers to training which unintentionally introduces incorrect information or invalid concepts, which could actually decrease rather than increase safety.

‘Negative transfer of training’ refers to the application (and ‘transfer’) of what was learned in a training environment (i.e. a classroom, an FSTD) to normal practice, i.e. it describes the degree to which what was learned in training is applied to actual, normal practices. In this context, negative transfer of training refers to the inappropriate generalisation of knowledge and skills to a situation or setting in normal practice that does not equal the training situation or setting.

‘Original Equipment Manufacturer (OEM)’ refers to the original equipment manufacturer of an aircraft or associated parts or equipment or of parts or equipment installed on the basis of a supplemental type certificate (STC).

‘Post-stall regime’ refers to flight conditions at an AoA greater than the critical AoA.

‘Scenario-based training’ refers to training that incorporates manoeuvres into real-world experiences to cultivate practical flying skills in an operational environment.

‘Stall’ refers to loss of lift caused by exceeding the aeroplane’s critical AoA.

Note: A stalled condition can exist at any attitude and airspeed, and may be recognised by continuous stall warning activation accompanied by at least one of the following:

(a)  buffeting, which could be heavy at times;

(b)  lack of pitch authority and/or roll control; and

(c)  inability to arrest the descent rate.

Note: It is possible that in certain conditions the stall warning may not be activated.

‘Stall event’ refers to an occurrence whereby the aeroplane experiences conditions associated with an approach-to-stall or a stall.

‘Stall (event) recovery procedure’ refers to the manufacturer-approved aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedures, such as those contained in the flight crew operations manual (FCOM). If an OEM-approved recovery procedure does not exist, the aeroplane-specific stall recovery procedure developed by the ATO, based on the stall recovery template, may be used.

‘Stall warning’ refers to a natural or synthetic indication provided when approaching a stall that may include one or more of the following indications:

(a)  aerodynamic buffeting (some aeroplanes will buffet more than others);

(b)  reduced roll stability and aileron effectiveness;

(c)  visual or aural cues and warnings;

(d)  reduced elevator (pitch) authority;

(e)  inability to maintain altitude or arrest rate of descent; and

(f)  stick shaker activation (if installed).

Note: A stall warning indicates an immediate need to reduce the AoA.

‘Startle’ refers to the initial, short-term, involuntary physiological and cognitive reactions to an unexpected event that commence the normal human stress response.

‘Stick pusher’ refers to any device that automatically applies a nose-down movement and pitch force to an aeroplane’s control columns to attempt to decrease the aeroplane’s AoA. Device activation may occur before or after aerodynamic stall, depending on the aeroplane type.

Note: A stick pusher is not installed on all aeroplane types.

‘Stick shaker’ refers to a device that automatically vibrates the control column to warn the pilot of an approaching stall.

Note: A stick shaker is not installed on all aeroplane types.

‘Stress (response)’ refers to the response to a threatening event that includes physiological, psychological and cognitive effects. These effects may range from positive to negative and can either enhance or decrease performance.

‘Surprise’ refers to the emotionally based recognition of a difference in what was expected and what is actual.

‘Train-to-proficiency’ refers to approved training designed to achieve end-state performance objectives, providing sufficient assurances that the trained individual is capable of consistently carrying out specific tasks safely and effectively.

Note: In the context of this definition, ‘train-to-proficiency’ can be replaced by ‘training-to-proficiency’.

‘Type-specific UPRT’ refers to UPRT elements and exercises integrated into training courses for the issue of a class or type rating pursuant to Part-FCL or during recurrent or refresher training for a specific aeroplane class or type.

‘Undesired aircraft state’ refers to flight-crew-induced aircraft position or speed deviation, misapplication of controls, or incorrect systems configuration, associated with a reduction in margins of safety.

Note (1): Undesired states can be managed effectively, restoring margins of safety, or flight crew response(s) can induce an additional error, incident or accident.

Note (2): All countermeasures are necessary flight crew actions. However, some countermeasures to threats, errors and undesired aircraft states that flight crew employ are built upon ‘hard’/systemic-based resources provided by the aviation system.

‘Unsafe situation’ refers to a situation which has led to an unacceptable reduction in safety margin.

‘Unusual attitude’ refers to an aircraft in flight intentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced in line operations or training, as applicable.

‘Incipient spin’ refers to a transient flight condition in the post-stall regime where an initial, uncommanded roll in excess of 45° has resulted from yaw asymmetry during a stall and which, if recovery action is not taken, will lead rapidly to a developing spin. Prompt recovery during this incipient spin stage will normally result in an overall heading change, from pre-stall conditions, of not more than 180°.

‘Developing spin’ refers to a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the aeroplane exhibits abnormal, but varying, rates of yaw and roll, together with changing pitch attitude, following an incipient spin but before the establishment of a developed spin. A developing spin follows an unrecovered incipient spin and will usually persist, in the absence of any recovery action, until a developed spin ensues.

‘Developed spin’ refers to a flight condition in the post-stall regime where the aeroplane has achieved approximately constant pitch attitude, yaw rate and roll rate on a descending flight path. In transition from a stall with significant, persistent yaw, with no recovery action, to attaining a developed spin, the aeroplane is likely to have rolled through at least 540°.

‘FSTD training envelope’ refers to the high and moderate confidence regions of the FSTD validation envelope.

GM4 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2019/005/R

DEFINITIONS IN GM3 FCL.010 RELATED TO THE POST-STALL REGIME

The definitions for ‘incipient spin’, developing spin’ and ‘developed spin’ in GM3 FCL.010 relate to the post-stall regime in aeroplanes that might typically be used in the context of the advanced UPRT in accordance with point FCL.745.A. The definitions are not intended for application to commercial air transport operations.

GM5 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2020/005/R

AVAILABLE AND ACCESSIBLE FSTDs

(a)  To determine the availability of an FSTD, the following additional criteria should be taken into account. The FSTD should be:

(1)  certified by a competent authority within the scope of the Basic Regulation;

(2)  approved by the competent authority for use within the scope of the Basic Regulation;

(3)  representative of the operator’s or applicant’s aircraft class or type, and serviceable; and

(4)  representative of the configuration of the operator’s or applicant’s aircraft.

(b)  To determine the accessibility of an FSTD, the following additional criteria should be taken into account. The FSTD should be:

(1)  accessible to the instructor or examiner of the applicant;

(2)  accessible for use within the scope of the candidate’s/operator’s training and checking activities; and

(3)  accessible to allow normal programming and prevent excessive scheduling disruptions within the operator’s crew roster patterns.

(c)  ‘irrespective of any time considerations’ means that the FSTD may be used at any time during day or night.

(d)  If an FSTD is not available or accessible, mitigating measures to ensure the required level of safety should be agreed with the competent authority before testing or checking the applicant in an aircraft.

GM6 FCL.010 Definitions

ED Decision 2022/014/R

(a) For the purpose of crediting of a pilot’s prior experience, ‘multi-pilot operation’ can be understood to include State aircraft operations (such as military or search & rescue) where two pilots are required by the applicable national regulations, the relevant operations manual or an equivalent document.

(b) Operations under Annex VII (Part-NCO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 are not under the ‘multi-pilot operation’ category, except for operations at an ATO for the purpose of providing training in multi-pilot operations, in accordance with the training manual of the ATO.

FCL.015 Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and certificates

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) An application for the issue, revalidation or renewal of pilot licences and associated ratings and certificates as well as any amendment thereto shall be submitted to the competent authority in a form and manner established by that authority. The application shall be accompanied by evidence that applicants comply with the requirements for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence or certificate as well as associated ratings or endorsements established in this Annex (Part-FCL) and in Annex IV (Part-MED).

(b) Unless otherwise specified in this Annex, any limitation or extension of the privileges granted by a licence, rating or certificate shall be endorsed in the licence or certificate by the competent authority.

(c) A person shall not hold at any time more than one licence per category of aircraft issued in accordance with this Part.

(d) A licence holder shall submit applications in accordance with paragraph (a) to the competent authority designated by the Member State in which his or her licence was issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL), Annex III (Part-BFCL) to Commission Regulation (EU) 2018/395 or with Annex III (Part-SFCL) to Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) 2018/1976, as applicable.

(e) The holder of a licence that has been issued in accordance with this Annex (Part-FCL) may apply to the competent authority designated by another Member State for a change of competent authority relating to all licences held, as specified in paragraph (d).

(f) For the issue of a licence, rating or certificate the applicant shall apply not later than 6 months after having succeeded at the skill test or assessment of competence.

(g) Training completed in aircraft or in FSTDs in accordance with Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 shall be taken into account for the experience and revalidation requirements established in this Annex (Part-FCL).

AMC1 FCL.015 Application and issue of licences, ratings and certificates

ED Decision 2011/016/R

APPLICATION AND REPORT FORMS

Common application and report forms can be found:

(a) For skill tests, proficiency checks for issue, revalidation or renewal of LAPL, BPL, SPL, PPL, CPL and IR in AMC1 to Appendix 7.

(b) For training, skill tests or proficiency checks for ATPL, MPL and class and type ratings, in AMC1 to Appendix 9.

(c) For assessments of competence for instructors, in AMC5 FCL.935.

GM1 FCL.015(a) Application and issue, revalidation and renewal of licences, ratings and certificates

ED Decision 2018/011/R

The application for the addition of the remark on the automatic validation of licences under licence item XIII can be submitted either when the pilot applies for the issue, revalidation or renewal of the licence, or independently at any other time.

FCL.020 Student pilot

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) A student pilot shall not fly solo unless authorised to do so and supervised by a flight instructor.

(b) Before his or her first solo flight, a student pilot shall be at least 16 years of age.

FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Responsibilities of the applicant

(1) Applicants shall take the entire set of theoretical knowledge examinations for a specific licence or rating under the responsibility of the same Member State’s competent authority

(2) Applicants shall only take the theoretical knowledge examination when recommended by the declared training organisation (DTO) or the approved training organisation (ATO) responsible for their training, once they have completed the appropriate elements of the training course of theoretical knowledge instruction to a satisfactory standard.

(3) The recommendation by a DTO or an ATO shall be valid for 12 months. If the applicant has failed to attempt at least one theoretical knowledge examination paper within this period of validity, the need for further training shall be determined by the DTO or the ATO, based on the needs of the applicant.

(b) Pass standards

(1) A pass in a theoretical knowledge examination paper will be awarded to an applicant achieving at least 75 % of the marks allocated to that paper. No penalty marking shall be applied.

(2) Unless otherwise determined in this Part, an applicant has successfully completed the required theoretical knowledge examination for the appropriate pilot licence or rating if he or she has passed all the required theoretical knowledge examination papers within a period of 18 months counted from the end of the calendar month when the applicant first attempted an examination.

(3)  If an applicant for the ATPL theoretical knowledge examination, or for the issue of a commercial pilot licence (CPL), or an instrument rating (IR) has failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts, or has failed to pass all papers within either six sittings or within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), he or she shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.

(4) If applicants for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence (LAPL) or a private pilot licence (PPL) have failed to pass one of the theoretical knowledge examination papers within four attempts or have failed to pass all papers within the period mentioned in point (b)(2), they shall retake the complete set of theoretical knowledge examination papers.

(5) Before retaking the theoretical knowledge examinations, applicants shall undertake further training at a DTO or an ATO. The extent and scope of the training needed shall be determined by the DTO or the ATO, based on the needs of the applicants.

(c) Validity period

(1) The successful completion of the theoretical knowledge examinations will be valid:

(i) for the issue of a light aircraft pilot licence or a private pilot licence, for a period of 24 months;

(ii) for the issue of a commercial pilot licence or instrument rating (IR), for a period of 36 months;

(iii) for the issue of a basic instrument rating (BIR), for an unlimited duration.

The periods in paragraphs (i) and (ii) shall be counted from the day on which the pilots have successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examination, in accordance with paragraph (b)(2).

(2) The completion of the airline transport pilot licence (ATPL) theoretical knowledge examinations will remain valid for the issue of an ATPL for a period of 7 years from the last validity date of:

(i) an IR entered in the licence; or

(ii) in the case of helicopters, a helicopter’s type rating entered in that licence.

GM1 FCL.025 Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences

ED Decision 2020/005/R

TERMINOLOGY

The meaning of the following terms used in FCL.025 should be as follows:

(a) ‘Entire set of examinations’: an examination in all subjects required by the licence level.

(b) ‘Examination’: the demonstration of knowledge in one or more examination papers.

(c) ‘Examination paper’: a set of questions, which covers one subject required by the licence level or rating, to be answered by a candidate for examination.

(d) ‘Attempt’: a try to pass a specific paper.

(e) ‘Sitting’: a period of time established by the competent authority within which a candidate can take an examination. This period should not exceed 10 consecutive days. Only one attempt at each examination paper is allowed in one sitting.

AMC1 FCL.025(a)(2) Theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of licences and ratings

ED Decision 2018/001/R

COMPLETION OF THE AREA 100 KSA ASSESSMENT BEFORE FINAL EXAMINATION

Before being recommended by an ATO to sit the final examination paper at the first attempt, an applicant for a professional licence should have successfully completed the applicable Area 100 KSA summative assessments and mental maths test at the ATO.

FCL.030 Practical skill test

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Before a skill test for the issue of a licence, rating or certificate is taken, the applicant shall have passed the required theoretical knowledge examination, except in the case of applicants undergoing a course of integrated flying training.

In any case, the theoretical knowledge instruction shall always have been completed before the skill tests are taken.

(b) Except for the issue of an airline transport pilot licence, the applicant for a skill test shall be recommended for the test by the organisation/person responsible for the training, once the training is completed. The training records shall be made available to the examiner.

(c) For the issue of a BIR, the applicant for a skill test must first complete all training modules and be recommended for the skill test by an ATO. His or her training records shall be made available to the examiner, by the ATO.

FCL.035 Crediting of flight time and theoretical knowledge

Regulation (EU) 2020/2193

(a) Crediting of flight time

(1) Unless otherwise specified in this Part, flight time to be credited for a licence, rating or certificate shall have been flown in the same category of aircraft for which the licence, rating or certificate is sought.

(2) PIC or under instruction.

(i) An applicant for a licence, rating or certificate shall be credited in full with all solo, dual instruction or PIC flight time towards the total flight time required for the licence, rating or certificate.

(ii) A graduate of an ATP integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the airline transport pilot licence, commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.

(iii) A graduate of a CPL/IR integrated training course is entitled to be credited with up to 50 hours of the student pilot-in-command instrument time towards the PIC time required for the issue of the commercial pilot licence and a multi-engine type or class rating.

(3) Flight time as co-pilot or PICUS. Unless otherwise determined in this Part, the holder of a pilot licence, when acting as co-pilot or PICUS, is entitled to be credited with all of the co-pilot time towards the total flight time required for a higher grade of pilot licence.

(4) All hours flown in aeroplanes or TMGs that are subject to a decision of a Member State taken in accordance with points (a) or (c) of Article 2(8) of Regulation (EU) 2018/1139 or that fall within the scope of Annex I to that Regulation shall be credited in full towards fulfilling the flight time requirements of point FCL.140.A(a)(1) and point FCL.740.A(b)(1)(ii) of this Annex, provided that the following conditions are met:

(i) the aeroplane or TMG concerned is of the same category and class as the Part-FCL aircraft in respect of which the hours flown are to be credited;

(ii) in case of training flights with an instructor, the aeroplane or TMG used is subject to an authorisation specified in point ORA.ATO.135 of Annex VII (Part-ORA) or point DTO.GEN.240 of Annex VIII (Part-DTO).

(b) Crediting of theoretical knowledge

(1) Applicants that have passed the theoretical knowledge examination for an airline transport pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge for the light aircraft pilot licence, the private pilot licence, the commercial pilot licence and, except in the case of helicopters, the IR and the BIR in the same category of aircraft.

(2) Applicants that have passed the theoretical knowledge examination for a commercial pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge for:

(i) the light aircraft pilot licence in the same category of aircraft;

(ii) the private pilot licence in the same category of aircraft; and

(iii) the subject ‘communications’ for the BIR. This credit shall include the IFR part of the subject ‘communications’ only if that subject was completed in accordance with point FCL.310, as applicable as of 20 December 2019.

(3)  Holders of an IR or applicants that have passed the IR theoretical knowledge examination for a category of aircraft shall be credited towards the requirements for the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for:

(i) the IR in another category of aircraft; and

(ii) the BIR.

(4)  Holders of a pilot licence shall be credited towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for a licence in another category of aircraft in accordance with Appendix 1 to this Part. This credit also applies to applicants for a pilot licence who have already successfully completed the theoretical knowledge examinations for the issue of that licence in another category of aircraft, as long as the theoretical knowledge examination is within the validity period specified in point FCL.025(c).

(5) By way of derogation from paragraph (b)(3), holders of an IR(A) who have completed a competency-based modular IR(A) course shall be fully credited towards the requirements for theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for an IR in another category of aircraft only if they have also passed the theoretical knowledge instruction and examination for the IFR part of the course required in accordance with point FCL.720.A.(a)(2)(ii)(A)._DxCrossRefBm1169327082

FCL.040 Exercise of the privileges of licences

Regulation (EU) 2019/1747

The exercise of the privileges granted by a licence shall be dependent upon the validity of the ratings contained therein, if applicable, and of the medical certificate as appropriate to the privileges exercised.

FCL.045 Obligation to carry and present documents

Regulation (EU) 2018/1065

(a) A valid licence and a valid medical certificate shall always be carried by the pilot when exercising the privileges of the licence.

(b) The pilot shall also carry a personal identification document containing his/her photo.

(c) A pilot or a student pilot shall without undue delay present his/her flight time record for inspection upon request by an authorised representative of a competent authority.

(d) A student pilot shall carry on all solo cross-country flights evidence of the authorisation required by FCL.020(a).

(e) A pilot intending to fly outside Union territory on an aircraft registered in a Member State other than the one that issued the flight crew licence shall carry, in print or in electronic format, the latest issue of the ICAO attachment, which includes a reference to the ICAO registration number of the agreement that recognises the automatic validation of licences, as well as the list of States which are party to this agreement.

FCL.050 Recording of flight time

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

The pilot shall keep a reliable record of the details of all flights flown in a form and manner established by the competent authority.

AMC1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time

ED Decision 2022/014/R

GENERAL

(a) The record of the flights flown should contain at least the following information:

(1) personal details: name(s) and address of the pilot;

(2) for each flight:

(i) name(s) of PIC;

(ii) date of flight;

(iii) place and time of departure and arrival;

(iv) type, including make, model and variant, and registration of the aircraft;

(v) indication if the aircraft is SE or ME, if applicable;

(vi) total time of flight;

(vii) accumulated total time of flight.

(3) for each FSTD session, if applicable:

(i) type and qualification number of the training device;

(ii) FSTD instruction;

(iii) date;

(iv) total time of session;

(v) accumulated total time.

(4) details on pilot function, namely PIC, including solo, SPIC and PICUS time, co-pilot, dual, FI or FE;

(5) Operational conditions, namely if the operation takes place at night, or is conducted under instrument flight rules.

(b) Logging of time:

(1) PIC flight time:

(i) the holder of a licence may log as PIC time all of the flight time during which he or she is the PIC;

(ii) the applicant for, or holder of, a pilot licence may log as PIC time all solo flight time, flight time as SPIC and flight time under supervision provided that such SPIC time and flight time under supervision are countersigned by the instructor;

(iii) the holder of an instructor certificate may log as PIC all flight time during which he or she acts as an instructor in an aircraft;

(iv) the holder of an examiner’s certificate may log as PIC all flight time during which he or she occupies a pilot’s seat and acts as an examiner in an aircraft;

(v) a co-pilot acting as PICUS on an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft or as required by operational requirements provided that such PICUS time is countersigned by the PIC;

(vi) if the holder of a pilot licence carries out a number of flights upon the same day returning on each occasion to the same place of departure and the interval between successive flights does not exceed 30 minutes, such series of flights may be recorded as a single entry;

(vii) where Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 requires the pilot to act as PIC under the supervision of another pilot (supervisor), both the pilot and the supervisor may log the flight time as PIC.

(2) co-pilot flight time: the holder of a pilot licence occupying a pilot seat as co-pilot may log all flight time as co-pilot flight time on an aircraft on which more than one pilot is required under the type certification of the aircraft, the regulations or the operations manual of the operator under which the flight is conducted;

(3) cruise relief co-pilot flight time: a cruise relief co-pilot may log all flight time as co-pilot when occupying a pilot’s seat;

(4) instruction time: a summary of all time logged by an applicant for a licence or rating as flight instruction, instrument flight instruction, instrument ground time, etc., may be logged if certified by the appropriately rated or authorised instructor from whom it was received;

(5) PICUS flight time: provided that the method of supervision is acceptable to the competent authority, a co-pilot may log as PIC flight time flown as PICUS when all the duties and functions of PIC on that flight were carried out in such a way that the intervention of the PIC in the interest of safety was not required.

(c) Format of the record:

(1) details of flights flown under commercial air transport may be recorded in an electronic format maintained by the operator.

In this case an operator should make the records of all flights operated by the pilot, including differences and familiarisation training, available upon request to the flight crew member concerned;

(2) for other types of flights in aeroplanes, helicopters and powered-lift aircraft, the pilot should record the details of the flights flown in the following logbook format, which may be kept in electronic format. All data set out in (a) should be included.

(3) For sailplanes, balloons and airships, a suitable format, which may be electric, should be used. That format should contain the relevant items mentioned in (a) and additional information specific to the type of operation.

ED Decision 2022/014/R

INSTRUCTIONS FOR USE

(d) FCL.050 requires holders of a pilot licence to record details of all flights flown. This logbook enables pilot licence holders to record flying experience in a manner which will facilitate this process while providing a permanent record of the licence holders flying. Pilots who fly regularly aeroplanes and helicopters or other aircraft categories are recommended to maintain separate logbooks for each aircraft category.

(e) Flight crew logbook entries should be made as soon as practicable after any flight undertaken. All entries in the flight crew logbook should comply with the following:

(1) in case of paper records, they should be made in ink or indelible pencil; or

 (2) in case of electronic records, they should be made and kept in a way to be readily available at the request of a competent authority, and contain all relevant items that are mentioned in (a), certified by the pilot, and in a format acceptable by the competent authority.

(f) The particulars of every flight in the course of which the holder of a flight crew licence acts as a member of the operating crew of an aircraft are to be recorded in the appropriate columns using one line for each flight, provided that if an aircraft carries out a number of flights upon the same day returning on each occasion to the same place of departure and the interval between successive flights does not exceed 30 minutes, such series of flights may be recorded as a single entry.

(g) Flight time is recorded:

(1) for aeroplanes, touring motor gliders and powered-lift aircraft, from the moment an aircraft first moves to taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the flight;

(2) for helicopters, from the moment a helicopter’s rotor blades start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and the rotor blades are stopped;

(3) for airships, from the moment an airship is released from the mast to taking off until the moment the airship finally comes to rest at the end of the flight, and is secured on the mast;

(h) When an aircraft carries two or more pilots as members of the operating crew, one of them shall, before the flight commences, be designated by the operator as the aircraft PIC, according to operational requirements, who may delegate the conduct of the flight to another suitably qualified pilot. All flying carried out as PIC is entered in the logbook as ‘PIC’. A pilot flying as ‘PICUS’ or ‘SPIC’ enters flying time as ‘PIC’ but all such entries are to be certified by the PIC or FI in the ‘Remarks’ column of the logbook.

(i) Notes on recording of flight time:

(1) column 1: enter the date (dd/mm/yy) on which the flight commences;

(2) column 2 or 3: enter the place of departure and destination either in full or the internationally recognised three or four letter designator. All times should be in UTC;

(3) column 5: indicate whether the operation was SP or MP, and for SP operation whether SE or ME;

Example:

(4) column 6: total time of flight may be entered in hours and minutes or decimal notation as desired;

(5) column 7: enter the name(s) of PIC or SELF as appropriate;

(6) column 8: indicate the number of landings as pilot flying by day or night;

(7) column 9: enter flight time undertaken at night or under instrument flight rules if applicable;

(8) column 10: pilot function time:

(i) enter flight time as PIC, SPIC and PICUS as PIC;

(ii) all time recorded as SPIC or PICUS is countersigned by the aircraft PIC/FI in the ‘remarks’ (column 12);

(iii) instructor time should be recorded as appropriate and also entered as PIC.

(9) column 11: FSTD:

(i) for any FSTD enter the type of aircraft and qualification number of the device. For other flight training devices enter either FNPT I or FNPT II as appropriate;

(ii) total time of session includes all exercises carried out in the device, including pre- and after-flight checks;

(iii) enter the type of exercise performed in the ‘remarks’ (column 12), for example operator proficiency check, revalidation.

(10) column 12: the ‘remarks’ column may be used to record details of the flight at the holder’s discretion. The following entries, however, should always be made:

(i) instrument flight time undertaken as part of the training for a licence or rating;

(ii) details of all skill tests and proficiency checks;

(iii) name and signature of PIC if the pilot is recording flight time as SPIC or PICUS;

(iv) name and signature of instructor if flight is part of an SEP or TMG class rating revalidation;

(v) for multi-pilot operations in single-pilot helicopters, the form of operation, name and signature of the examiner conducting the skill test or proficiency check or operator proficiency check, and the name of the operator in the case of the operator proficiency check.

(j) When each page is completed, accumulated flight time or hours should be entered in the appropriate columns and certified by the pilot in the ‘remarks’ column.

Example:

GM1 FCL.050 Recording of flight time

ED Decision 2022/014/R

EXAMPLES FOR THE USE OF COLUMN 12 ‘REMARKS’ OF THE PILOT LOGBOOK

Pilots may use column 12 ‘remarks’ of the pilot logbook (AMC1 FCL.050) to record the specific nature of a particular flight in the following cases, since a record of relevant experience might be useful with respect to operational requirements:

(a) flight time as a pilot in a specialised operation, using the list provided in GM1 NCO.SPEC.100 and GM1 SPO.GEN.100 (see AMC1 ORO.FC.146(e);(f)&(g) of the AMC and GM to Annex III (Part‑ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — ED Decision 2014/017/R);

(b) HEC 1 and 2 cycles, HESLO 1, 2, 3, and 4 cycles, and HHO hoisting cycles by day and night, as pilot flying (see AMC1 SPO.SPEC.HEC.100 and AMC1 SPO.SPEC.HESLO.100 of the AMC and GM to Annex VIII (Part-SPO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — ED Decision 2014/018/R, and point SPA.HHO.130 of Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012);

(c) HHO hours (see point SPA.HHO.130 of Part-SPA);

(d) offshore landings by day / by night, as pilot flying (see point SPA.HOFO.170 of Part-SPA);

(e) NVIS flights or hours (see GM1 SPA.NVIS.130 of the AMC and GM to Annex V (Part-SPA) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012 — ED Decision 2012/019/R);

(f) IFR approaches in the single-pilot role (see point ORO.FC.202 of Annex III (Part-ORO) to Regulation (EU) No 965/2012);

(g) any activity deemed necessary to be recorded for evidence purposes.

Pilots may also use column 12 ‘remarks’ to record IFR approaches exercising PBN privileges and RNP APCH approaches in single-pilot operations (see Appendix 8 to Annex I (Part-FCL)).

FCL.055 Language proficiency

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) General. Aeroplane, helicopter, powered-lift and airship pilots required to use the radio telephone shall not exercise the privileges of their licences and ratings unless they have a language proficiency endorsement on their licence in either English or the language used for radio communications involved in the flight. The endorsement shall indicate the language, the proficiency level and the validity date, and it shall be obtained in accordance with a procedure established by a competent authority. The minimum acceptable proficiency level is the operational level (Level 4) in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex.

(b) The applicant for a language proficiency endorsement shall demonstrate, in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex, at least an operational level of language proficiency both in the use of phraseologies and plain language to an assessor certified by a competent authority or a language-testing body approved by a competent authority as applicable. To do so, the applicant shall demonstrate the ability to:

(1) communicate effectively in voice-only and in face-to-face situations;

(2) communicate on common and work-related topics with accuracy and clarity;

(3) use appropriate communicative strategies to exchange messages and to recognise and resolve misunderstandings in a general or work-related context;

(4) handle successfully the linguistic challenges presented by a complication or unexpected turn of events which occurs within the context of a routine work situation or communicative task with which they are otherwise familiar; and

(5) use a dialect or accent which is intelligible to the aeronautical community.

(c) Except for pilots who have demonstrated language proficiency at an expert level (level 6) in accordance with Appendix 2 to this Annex, the language proficiency endorsement shall be re-evaluated every:

(1) 4 years, if the level demonstrated is operational level (level 4); or

(2) 6 years, if the level demonstrated is extended level (level 5).

(d) Specific requirements for holders of an instrument rating (IR). By way of derogation from the paragraphs above, holders of an IR shall have demonstrated the ability to use the English language at the appropriate proficiency level as defined in Appendix 2 to this Annex.

(e) The demonstration of language proficiency and the use of the English language for IR holders shall be done through a method of assessment established by any competent authority.

AMC1 FCL.055 Language proficiency

ED Decision 2020/005/R

GENERAL

(a) The method of assessment of the language proficiency level (hereafter: assessment) should be designed to reflect a range of tasks undertaken by pilots but with specific focus on language rather than operational procedures.

(b) The assessment should determine the applicant’s ability to:

(1) communicate effectively using standard R/T phraseology;

(2) deliver and understand messages in plain language in both usual and unusual situations that necessitate departure from standard R/T phraseology.

Note: refer to the ‘Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency Requirements’ (ICAO Doc 9835), Appendix A Part III and Appendix B for further guidance.

ASSESSMENT

(c) The assessment may be subdivided into three elements, as follows:

(1) listening: assessment of comprehension;

(2) speaking: assessment of pronunciation, fluency, structure and vocabulary;

(3) interaction.

(d) The three elements mentioned above may be combined and they can be covered by using a wide variety of means or technologies.

(e) Where appropriate, some or all of these elements may be achieved through the use of the R/T testing arrangements.

(f) When the elements of the testing are assessed separately, the final assessment should be consolidated in the language proficiency endorsement issued by the competent authority.

(g) The assessment may be conducted during one of the several existing checking or training activities, such as licence issue or rating issue and revalidation, line training, operator line checks or proficiency checks.

(h) The competent authority may use its own resources in developing or conducting the language proficiency assessment, or may delegate this task to language testing bodies.

(i) The competent authority should establish an appeal procedure for applicants.

(j) The holder of a licence should receive a statement containing the level and validity of the language endorsements.

(k) Where the assessment method for the English language established by the competent authority is equivalent to that established for the assessment of use of the English language in accordance with AMC2 FCL.055, the same assessment may be used for both purposes.

BASIC ASSESSMENT REQUIREMENTS

(l) The aim of the assessment is to determine the ability of an applicant for a pilot licence or a licence holder to speak and understand the language used for R/T communications.

(1) The assessment should determine the ability of the applicant to use both:

(i) standard R/T phraseology;

(ii) plain language, in situations when standardised phraseology cannot serve an intended transmission.

(2) The assessment should include:

(i) voice-only and face-to-face situations;

(ii) common, concrete and work-related topics for pilots.

(3) The applicants should demonstrate their linguistic ability in dealing with an unexpected turn of events, and in solving apparent misunderstandings.

(4) The assessment should determine the applicant’s speaking and listening abilities. Indirect assessments, of grammatical knowledge, reading and writing, are not appropriate.

(5) The assessment should determine the language skills of the applicant in the following areas:

(i) pronunciation:

(A) the extent to which the pronunciation, stress, rhythm and intonation are influenced by the applicant’s first language or national variations;

(B) how much they interfere with ease of understanding.

(ii) structure:

(A) the ability of the applicant to use both basic and complex grammatical structures;

(B) the extent to which the applicant’s errors interfere with the meaning.

(iii) vocabulary:

(A) the range and accuracy of the vocabulary used;

(B) the ability of the applicant to paraphrase successfully when lacking vocabulary.

(iv) fluency:

(A) tempo;

(B) hesitancy;

(C) rehearsed versus spontaneous speech;

(D) use of discourse markers and connectors.

(v) comprehension:

(A) on common, concrete and work-related topics;

(B) when confronted with a linguistic or situational complication or an unexpected turn of events.

Note: the accent or variety of accents used in the test material should be sufficiently intelligible for an international community of users.

(vi) interactions:

(A) quality of response (immediate, appropriate, and informative);

(B) the ability to initiate and maintain exchanges:

(a) on common, concrete and work-related topics;

(b) when dealing with an unexpected turn of events.

(C) the ability to deal with apparent misunderstandings by checking, confirming or clarifying.

Note: the assessment of the language skills in the areas mentioned above is conducted using the rating scale in AMC2 FCL.055.

ASSESSORS

(m) It is essential that the persons responsible for language proficiency assessment (‘assessors’) are suitably trained and qualified. They should be either aviation specialists (for example current or former flight crew members or air traffic controllers), or language specialists with additional aviation related training. An alternative approach would be to form an assessment team consisting of an operational expert and a language expert.

(1) The assessors should be trained on the specific requirements of the assessment.

(2) The assessors should not test applicants to whom they have given language training.

CRITERIA FOR THE ACCEPTABILITY OF LANGUAGE-TESTING BODIES

(n) To ensure an impartial assessment process, the language assessment should be independent of the language training.

(1) To be accepted, the language-testing bodies should demonstrate:

(i) appropriate management and staffing;

(ii) quality system established and maintained to ensure compliance with, and adequacy of, assessment requirements, standards and procedures.

(2) The quality system established by a language-testing body should address the following:

(i) management;

(ii) policy and strategy;

(iii) processes;

(iv) the relevant provisions of ICAO or Part-FCL, standards and assessment procedures;

(v) organisational structure;

(vi) responsibility for the development, establishment and management of the quality system;

(vii) documentation;

(viii) quality assurance programme;

(ix) human resources and training (initial and recurrent);

(x) assessment requirements;

(xi) customer satisfaction.

(3) The assessment documentation and records should be kept for a period of time determined by the competent authority and made available to this competent authority, on request.

(4) The assessment documentation should include at least the following:

(i) assessment objectives;

(ii) assessment layout, time scale, technologies used, assessment samples, voice samples;

(iii) assessment criteria and standards (at least for the levels 4, 5 and 6 of the rating scale mentioned in AMC2 FCL.055);

(iv) documentation demonstrating the assessment validity, relevance and reliability;

(v) assessment procedures and responsibilities:

(A) preparation of individual assessment;

(B) administration: location(s), identity check and invigilation, assessment discipline, confidentiality or security;

(C) reporting and documentation provided to the competent authority or to the applicant, including sample certificate;

(D) retention of documents and records.

Note: refer to the ‘Manual on the Implementation of ICAO Language Proficiency Requirements’ (ICAO Doc 9835) for further guidance.

AMC2 FCL.055 Language proficiency

ED Decision 2011/016/R

RATING SCALE

The following table describes the different levels of language proficiency:

Note: operational Level (Level 4) is the minimum required proficiency level for R/T communication.

Levels 1 through 3 describe pre-elementary, elementary and pre-operational levels of language proficiency respectively, all of which describe a level below the language proficiency requirement.

Levels 5 and 6 describe extended and expert levels at levels of proficiency more advanced than the minimum required standard.

AMC3 FCL.055 Language proficiency

ED Decision 2011/016/R

SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR HOLDERS OF AN IR

USE OF ENGLISH LANGUAGE

(a) The requirement of FCL.055(d) includes the ability to use the English language for the following purposes:

(1) flight: R/T relevant to all phases of flight, including emergency situations.

(2) ground: all information relevant to the accomplishment of a flight:

(i) be able to read and demonstrate an understanding of technical manuals written in English, for example an operations manual, a helicopter flight manual, etc.;

(ii) pre-flight planning, weather information collection, NOTAMs, ATC flight plan, etc.;

(iii) use of all aeronautical en-route, departure and approach charts and associated documents written in English.

(3) communication: be able to communicate with other crew members in English during all phases of flight, including flight preparation.

(b) Alternatively, the items in (a) above may be demonstrated:

(1) by having passed a specific examination given by the competent authority after having undertaken a course of training enabling the applicant to meet all the objectives listed in (a) above; or

(2) the item in (a)(1) above is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant has passed an IR, MPL or ATPL skill test and proficiency check during which the two-way R/T communication is performed in English;

(3) the item in (a)(2) above is considered to be fulfilled if the applicant has graduated from an IR, MPL or ATP course given in English or if he or she has passed the theoretical IR or ATPL examination in English;

(4) the item in (a)(3) above is considered to be fulfilled, if the applicant for or the holder of an IR has graduated from an MCC course given in English and is holding a certificate of satisfactory completion of that course or if the applicant has passed a MP skill test and proficiency check for the issue of a class or type rating during which the two-way R/T communication and the communication with other crew members are performed in English.

(c) Where the examination methods referred to above are equivalent to those established for the language proficiency requirements in accordance with AMC1 FCL.055, the examination may be used to issue a language proficiency endorsement.

FCL.060 Recent experience

Regulation (EU) 2021/2227

(b) Aeroplanes, helicopters, powered-lift aircraft and airships. A pilot shall not operate an aircraft in commercial air transport or to carry passengers:

(1) as PIC or co-pilot unless he or she has carried out, in the preceding 90 days, at least 3 take‑offs, approaches and landings as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class. The 3 take-offs and landings shall be performed in either multi-pilot or single-pilot operations, depending on the privileges held by the pilot; and

(2) as PIC at night unless he/she:

(i) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 1 take-off, approach and landing at night as a pilot flying in an aircraft of the same type or class or an FFS representing that type or class; or

(ii) holds an IR;

(3) as cruise relief co-pilot unless he/she:

(i) has complied with the requirements in (b)(1); or

(ii) has carried out in the preceding 90 days at least 3 sectors as a cruise relief pilot on the same type or class of aircraft; or

(iii) has carried out recency and refresher flying skill training in an FFS at intervals not exceeding 90 days. This refresher training may be combined with the operator’s refresher training prescribed in the relevant requirements of Part-ORO.

(4) When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of aeroplane with similar handling and operation characteristics, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21.

(5) When a pilot has the privilege to operate more than one type of non-complex helicopter with similar handling and operation characteristics, as defined in the operational suitability data established in accordance with Part-21, the 3 take-offs, approaches and landings required in (1) may be performed in just one of the types, provided that the pilot has completed at least 2 hours of flight in each of the types of helicopter, during the preceding 6 months.

(c) Specific requirements for commercial air transport:

(1) In the case of commercial air transport, the 90-day period prescribed in subparagraphs (b)(1) and (2) above may be extended up to a maximum of 120 days, as long as the pilot undertakes line flying under the supervision of a type rating instructor or examiner.

(2) If the pilot does not comply with the requirement in point (1), he or she shall complete a training flight with an instructor qualified in accordance with Subpart J to instruct for that aircraft type. The training flight shall be performed in the aircraft or an FFS of the aircraft type to be used, and shall include at least the requirements described in points (b)(1) and (2) before he or she can exercise his/her privileges.

AMC1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience

ED Decision 2011/016/R

When a pilot needs to carry out one or more flights with an instructor or an examiner to comply with the requirement of FCL.060(b)(1) before the pilot can carry passengers, the instructor or examiner on board those flights will not be considered as a passenger.

GM1 FCL.060(b)(1) Recent experience

ED Decision 2011/016/R

AEROPLANES, HELICOPTERS, POWERED-LIFT, AIRSHIPS AND SAILPLANES

If a pilot or a PIC is operating under the supervision of an instructor to comply with the required three take-offs, approaches and landings, no passengers may be on board.

AMC1 FCL.060(b)(5) Recent experience

ED Decision 2011/016/R

NON-COMPLEX HELICOPTERS

Grouping of non-complex helicopters with similar handling and operational characteristics:

(a) Group 1: Bell 206/206L, Bell 407;

(b) Group 2: Hughes 369, MD 500N, MD 520N, MD 600;

(c) Group 3: SA 341/342, EC 120;

(d) Group 4: SA 313/318, SA 315/316/319, AS 350, EC 130;

(e) Group 5: all types listed in AMC1 FCL.740.H(a)(3) and R 22 and R 44.

FCL.065 Curtailment of privileges of licence holders aged 60 years or more in commercial air transport

Regulation (EU) 2020/359

(a) Age 60-64. Aeroplanes and helicopters. The holder of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 60 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft engaged in commercial air transport except as a member of a multi-pilot crew.

(b) Age 65. Holders of a pilot licence who has attained the age of 65 years shall not act as a pilot of an aircraft that is engaged in commercial air transport.

FCL.070 Revocation, suspension and limitation of licences, ratings and certificates

Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011

(a) Licences, ratings and certificates issued in accordance with this Part may be limited, suspended or revoked by the competent authority when the pilot does not comply with the requirements of this Part, Part-Medical or the applicable operational requirements, in accordance with the conditions and procedures laid down in Part-ARA.

(b) When the pilot has his/her licence suspended or revoked, he/she shall immediately return the licence or certificate to the competent authority.